In the Protagoras, Socrates argues from 353a-357e that weakness of will (i.e. thinking that A is worse than B but still doing A) is impossible, and that what people call being overcome by pleasure is in fact a form of ignorance. What is the argument?

Does it work?2. In Gorgias 495b-497d Socrates gets Callicles to agree that pleasure is not the good, despite what he had claimed earlier. What is Socrates argument against hedonism? Is it a good one? Why or why not?3. In Gorgias 497e-499b, Socrates gets Callicles to agree that the bad man turns out to be both good and bad, and in roughly equal measure. Does his argument reveal a flaw in Callicles position about excellence and happiness, or is it a trick? Why?

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